od Stefanowsky » Utorak, 24. Februar 2015, 20:52
Dokazati da za [inlmath]n>2[/inlmath] vazi:
[dispmath]\log_{n!}^2n+\log_{n!}^2(n-1)+\log_{n!}^2(n-2)>\frac{1}{3}[/dispmath]
Pozeljno je da se ne radi preko indukcije

Ali je svako resenje dobrodoslo.
"Let us learn to dream, gentlemen, then perhaps we shall find the truth... But let us beware of publishing our dreams till they have been tested by waking understanding."